NURS 231 PATHOPHYS FINAL EXAM Latest Update 2024-2025 500 Questions and 100% Verified Correct Answers Guaranteed A+ ___ ____ is diagnosed by hyperglycemia, low serum bicarbonate, and low pH, with
ketonemia and moderate ketonuria. - CORRECT ANSWER: Diabetic ketoacidosis
(DKA)
____ disorders occur when the immune system fails to differentiate self from non-self. -
CORRECT ANSWER: autoimmune
_____ is the flow of gases into and out of the alveoli of the lungs. - CORRECT
ANSWER: Ventilation
______ is defined as a blood glucose of <60 mg/dL, with associated cognitive
impairment. - CORRECT ANSWER: Hypoglycemia
______ measures expiratory volume in a given time. - CORRECT ANSWER: Forced
expiratory volume (FEV)
_______ failure is caused by conditions that damage the structures within the kidney. -
CORRECT ANSWER: Intrarenal
_______ is sleep disordered breathing due to the brain not properly signaling the
respiratory muscles. - CORRECT ANSWER: Central sleep apnea
________ utilizes electric impulses to inhibit or stop the abnormal nerve activity that causes tremor and other unwanted movement patterns associated with Parkinson's
disease. - CORRECT ANSWER: Deep brain stimulation
. Left ventricular hypertrophy is a major risk factor for what other diseases? Name at
least 2. - CORRECT ANSWER: coronary heart disease, cardiac dysrhythmias,
congestive heart failure, and sudden death.
- ______ is a systemic treatment that enables drugs to reach the site of the tumor as
well as other distant sites. - CORRECT ANSWER: chemotherapy
- The three major determinants of myocardial oxygen demand (MVO2) include each of
the following except: - CORRECT ANSWER: a. Diastolic pressure
- ______ is the most important factor in myocardial oxygen demand. As this increases,
myocardial oxygen consumption or demand also increases. - CORRECT ANSWER:
heart rate
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3. What is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock? - CORRECT ANSWER:
myocardial infarction
4. Which does NOT occur during cardiogenic shock? - CORRECT ANSWER:
decreased systemic vascular resistance
A 12-year-old female presents with itchy eyes, nasal congestion and drainage, and sneezing every spring when the pollen count is high. (1) Explain the immunologic mechanisms that are responsible for her symptoms. (2) What type(s) of treatment might be used to relieve her symptoms? - CORRECT ANSWER: 1) Mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils play an important role in the development of type I reactions because they contain the chemical mediator histamine. A primary or initial-phase response is vasodilation, vascular leakage, and smooth muscle contraction. A secondary or late- phase response is characterized by more intense infiltration of tissues with eosinophils and other acute and chronic inflammatory cells, as well as tissue damage. (2) Antihistamines and intranasal corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment.
A 22-year-old competitive gymnast has experienced amenorrhea for the past 5 years.Her PCP is suspecting that she may have premature osteoporosis. Would you expect her RANKL levels to be high, normal, or low? Explain why her levels would be at this
level. - CORRECT ANSWER: Her RANKL levels would be higher than normal.
Amenorrhea results in lower estrogen levels. Estrogen increases the production of OPG which inhibits RANKL. Lower estrogen levels would lead to lower OPG levels in turn increasing RANKL and osteoclast activity.
A 30-year-old man is brought to the ER with a knife wound to the chest. On visual inspection, asymmetry of chest movement during inspiration, displacement of the trachea, and absence of breath sounds on the side of the wound are noted. His neck veins are distended, and his pulse is rapid and thready.What is your initial diagnosis?
What type of emergent treatment is necessary? - CORRECT ANSWER: 1) tension
pneumothorax 2) chest tube
A 40-year-old man presents with cough and shortness of breath. After an H&P and chest films, it is determined he has pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP). The provider does an HIV test, which is positive. Upon further testing, the man's CD4+ cell count is 100 cells/µL and his viral load is 250,000 copies/mL. (1) Why did the provider do an HIV test after the man was diagnosed with PCP? (2) What classification does this man fall into based on his CD4+ count and symptomatology, and why - CORRECT
ANSWER: (1) Opportunistic infections are those common organisms that do not
produce infection without impaired immune function. (2) The last phase, or AIDS illness, occurs when the CD4+ cell count falls to less than 200 cells/µL or exhibits an AIDS- defining illness. The risk of opportunistic infections and death increases significantly when the CD4+ cell count falls below 200 cells/µL.
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A 40-year-old woman has experienced heavy menstrual bleeding. She was told she has a uterine tumor called a leiomyoma. She is worried she has cancer. What do you tell her? Explain at least 2 differences between a benign and malignant tumor - CORRECT ANSWER: i would explain to her that it is a benign tumor, and that there is nothing to worry about
- benign tumors grow by expansion and are usually encapsulated; while malignant
tumors grow by invading and taking over tissue 2: benign tissue is well differentiated and looks like the tissue of origin, while malignant cells are undifferentiated and are atypical and do not look like the tissues of origin.
A 40-year-old woman is hospitalized with a chronic illness characterized by hepatomegaly, distended neck veins, and peripheral edema. Which of the following disorders is the most likely cause of these findings? - CORRECT ANSWER: Right heart failure
A 40-year-old woman presents with amenorrhea and weight loss despite increased appetite. The history and physical exam show exophthalmos, tachycardia, and warm, moist skin. Each of the following lab abnormalities are expected EXCEPT: - CORRECT
ANSWER: Increased TSH
A 45-year-old obese, sedentary male has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes.What are 2 strategies to help him normalize his blood sugars? List 2 other macrovascular complications he is at risk for and how you would screen for them? - CORRECT ANSWER: (1) Diet, exercise, and weight loss may be all that they need to control blood glucose levels. Even moderate weight loss of 5-10% of total body weight has been shown to improve glucose control. (2) Hypertension and hyperlipidemia - checking blood pressure and screening with a serum lipid panel.
A 50-year-old woman was diagnosed with breast cancer from tissue biopsy following her diagnostic mammography. They are determining if it has spread to the lymph nodes.(1) Explain what the sentinel node is. (2) How will they determine if it has spread to the lymph system? (3) Would a detailed family history of disease be important to obtain? -
CORRECT ANSWER: The sentinel node is the first lymph node to which the primary
tumor drains. The extent of disease may be determined through lymphatic mapping and sentinel lymph node biopsy. A radioactive tracer and/or blue dye is injected into the tumor to determine the first lymph node. This lymph node is examined for the presence of cancer cells. Yes, heredity can be a strong risk factor for cancer in some families.
A 60-year-old, obese female works out of her home and rarely walks due to the sedentary nature of her job. Give 2 reasons why she is at increased risk for developing
OA. - CORRECT ANSWER: She is a female over the age of 55; she is obese, and she
is relatively sedentary which contributes to the decreased nourishment of the joint that comes with weight bearing and range of motion. (*Note - student only needs to provide
- reasons.)
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A 68-year-old, white Caucasian female has a DEXA scan at the recommendation of her PCP. Her scan yielded a T-score of -2.6. Interpret the results of her DEXA scan.Develop a treatment plan giving a pharmacologic recommendation if applicable (be specific with name of supplement and/or class of drug), and a non-pharmacologic
recommendation. - CORRECT ANSWER: This T-score indicates osteoporosis. This
patient should take a Calcium and Vitamin D supplement. In addition, she should be prescribed one of the following: Estrogen, SERMs, Bisphosphonates, or Calcitonin. She should also participate in regular weight bearing and resistive exercise being careful to choose activities that would not put her at increased risk for falling.
A 72-year-old male is said to be in phase 2 of gout. He is obese and has a history of alcohol abuse. Develop a treatment plan including specific pharmacologic intervention and a non-pharmacologic recommendation to manage his disease. - CORRECT ANSWER: Phase 2 of gout is acute gout arthritis. The goal of treatment in this phase is to control inflammation and pain. Colchicine is a prescription drug that could be used to treat his acute inflammation. NSAIDS can also be used to treat inflammation and manage pain. This patient should be encouraged to lose weight and decrease his alcohol consumption. He should also avoid purine rich foods such as fish, bacon, and liver. (*Note - the student has to provide 1 pharmacologic intervention and 1 non- pharmacologic recommendation.)
A 75-year-old male is brought to the emergency department by their spouse at 8 pm.The spouse reports that they were cleaning up after dinner at approximately 6:30 pm, and she noticed that her husband's speech was very unclear. When she asked him what was going on, he said that he didn't know and that the entire right side of his face felt numb. She reports that he is very active, but he has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation. Based upon these symptoms and past medical history, what do you suspect this patient is experiencing? How would you confirm this diagnosis? What treatment
should be administered? Explain why you chose that treatment. - CORRECT ANSWER:
This patient is more than likely experiencing an ischemic stroke. A CT scan and MRI would be needed to determine if a clot was blocking blood flow to the brain tissue and to rule out a hemorrhagic stroke. If a clot is found, this patient should receive tPA drugs as they are within the 3-4.5 hour treatment window.
A bodybuilder's muscles will display hyperplasia. - CORRECT ANSWER: False
A decrease in Na+ reabsorption is achieved through the action of which of the
following? - CORRECT ANSWER: Diuretics
A diabetic's risk of macrovascular diseases is 2-4 times higher and the leading cause of death among diabetics (50-75%) is from a macrovascular disease. Name 3 of the 4 complications listed: - CORRECT ANSWER: Peripheral vascular disease, coronary artery disease, heart attack, and stroke
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