NSG 6420 W2 Quiz Latest Update 2024-2025

Study Guides Aug 15, 2025
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NSG 6420 W2 Quiz Latest Update 2024-2025 Actual Exam Questions and 100% Verified Correct Answers Guaranteed A+

A 26-year-old patient present with cough and general malaise for 3 days. They note that their eye have been watering clear fluid and a "runny nose" since yesterday. they note they "feel miserable" and demand something to make them feel better. What would be

the best first plan of treatment? - CORRECT ANSWER: Saline nasal spray for

congestion and acetaminophen as needed for pain

A 45-year-old patient presents with "sore throat" and fever for one week. After a quick strep screen you determine the patient has Strep throat. You know that streptococcal pharyngitis should be treated with antibiotics to prevent compl.ications and to shorten the course of disease. Which of the following antibiotics should be considered when a

patient is allergic to Penicillin? - CORRECT ANSWER: EES (erythromycin)

A 64-year-old male presents with erythema of the sclera, tearing, and bilateral pruritus of the eyes. The symptoms occur intermittently throughout the year and he has associated clear nasal discharge. Which of the following is most likely because of the

inflammation? - CORRECT ANSWER: Allergen

A patient complains of fever, fatigue, and pharyngitis. On physical examination there is pronounced cervical lymphadenopathy. Which of the following diagnostic tests should be considered? - CORRECT ANSWER: All of the above (mono spot, strep test, throat culture)

A patient presents with eye redness, scant discharge, and a gritty sensation. Your

examination reveals palpable preauricular nodes, which are most likely with: -

CORRECT ANSWER: Grossly visible corneal defect

An 86-year-old patient who wears a hearing aid complains of poor hearing in the affected ear. In addition to possible hearing aid malfunction, this condition is often due to: - CORRECT ANSWER: Cerumen impaction

Dizziness that is described as "lightheaded" or "like I'm going to faint" is usually caused by inadequate cerebral perfusion and is classified as: - CORRECT ANSWER: Presyncope

Epistaxis can be a symptom of: - CORRECT ANSWER: All of the above (over- anticoagulation, hematologic malignancy, cocaine abuse)

In assessing the eyes, which of the following is considered a "red flag" finding when

associated with eye redness? - CORRECT ANSWER: Grossly visible corneal defect

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Category: Study Guides
Added: Aug 15, 2025
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NSG 6420 W2 Quiz Latest Update 2024-2025 Actual Exam Questions and 100% Verified Correct Answers Guaranteed A+ A 26-year-old patient present with cough and general malaise for 3 days. They note tha...

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