Midterm Exam: NR601 / NR 601
(Latest Update 2024 / 2025) Primary Care of the Maturing & Aged Family Practicum | Exam Review Questions & Answers| 100% Correct | Grade A
- Chamberlain
Question:
The NP has determined that a 72-year-old female patient that she has been following for the last four years for anemia evaluation. Which clinical data below guided the NP's decision?
Answer:
A 1 g/dL decrease in Hgb in less than 5 years
Question:
The NP has diagnosed iron deficiency anemia in her 66-year-old male patient.To establish the ideology of the ID a comma what is the next action by the NP?
Answer:
Order fecal guaiac tests and endoscopy
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Question:
The NP is challenged to determine if her 70 year old patients anemia is due to iron deficiency anemia or anemia of chronic inflammation. Because the patient has advanced cancer and a ferritin level of less than 30 to 50 ng it is
reasonable for the NP to:
Answer:
Treat the patient for iron deficiency anemia
Question:
The NP identifies thrombocytopenia, neutropenia, and abnormal peripheral blood smear that is unexplained. What is the NP's next action?
Answer:
Refer the patient to a hematologist/oncologist for bone marrow examination
Question:
Chemotherapy related toxicity may occur in older adults. Nearly all
antineoplastics cause:
Answer:
Anemia Fatigue
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Question:
Which of the following patients will benefit most from a geriatric assessment as part of determining the best treatment of cancer?
Answer:
A 72 year old female with lung cancer
Question:
When performing an assessment, the NP recognizes that the metacarpophalangeal Joints are frequently involved with?
Answer:
Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)
Question:
The NP is examining a 64-year-old patient who is complaining of pain in her hips and knees. She has a history of osteoarthritis. On exam the joints are painful to movement and are warm to touch. The best immediate therapy for this patient is?
Answer:
Physical therapy for range of motion of affected areas
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