ANP-650 Midterm Study Guide Latest Update 2023-2024 250 Questions and 100% Verified Correct Answers 100% Complete 1.A child is diagnosed with severe allergic rhinitis. Which of the following manifestations would the nurse most likely assess in this client?
- Edematous neck glands
- Reduced hearing
- Pruritis
4. Frequent wiping of the nose with the palm of the hand - CORRECT ANSWER:
CORRECT ANSWER: 4
Frequent wiping of the nose with the palm of the hand is one symptom seen in the client diagnosed with severe allergic rhinitis. Edematous neck glands, reduced hearing, and pruritis are not manifestations of severe allergic rhinitis.
1.A client is diagnosed with a headache from a secondary cause. The nurse realizes
this type of headache can be caused by:
- a tumor.
- tension.
- a migraine.
- cluster - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: 1
Primary headaches are identified when no organic cause can be found. A tumor headache is caused by a tumor and is classified as a secondary headache.
1.A client is diagnosed with strabismus. Which of the following will the client most likely experience with this disorder?
- Nystagmus
- Diplopia
- Aphakic vision
- Ptosis - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: 2
Diplopia, or double vision, is the primary symptom of strabismus. Nystagmus is a disorder that causes involuntarily rhythmic movements in the eye. Aphakic vision occurs when the lens of the eye is removed. Ptosis is drooping of the eyelid.
1.A client is diagnosed with tonic-clonic seizures. Which are the characteristics of these types of seizures? (Select all that apply.)
- Progressing through all of the seizure phases
- Beginning before age 5
- Lasting 2 to 3 minutes
- Causing injury to the client
- Occurring at any time, day or night
- Being highly variable - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: 1, 3, 4, 5, 6
Tonic-clonic seizures are the most common type of generalized seizure. The seizure will progress through all of the seizure phases and last 2 to 3 minutes. Because these seizures begin suddenly, there is an increased incidence of injury associated with them. 1 / 4
These seizures can occur any time of the day or night, whether the client is awake or not. Seizure frequency is highly variable.
1.A client is not able to successfully pass the whisper test. Which of the following would be indicated for this client?
- Head CT scan
- Audiometry
- MRI of the brain
- Electroencephalogram - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: 2
Failure to pass the whisper test would indicate the need for formal audiometry testing.The client would not need a head CT or MRI at this time. An electroencephalogram is not necessary.
1.A client tells the nurse that he does not want to develop macular degeneration like his mother. Which of the following should the nurse instruct the client as being risk factors for the development of this disorder? (Select all that apply.)
- There is greater risk as people age.
- Women are at greater risk than men.
- African Americans are at greater risk than Caucasians.
- Family history of macular degeneration increases risk.
- Smoking does not increase risk.
6. Alcohol prevents the onset of this disorder. - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT
ANSWER: 1, 2, 4
Recent statistics show that macular degeneration is age related and that women are at greater risk than men. Family history and smoking are also significant risk factors.Caucasians are at greater risk than African Americans. Alcohol does not prevent the onset of this disorder.
1.A client, being tested for a stroke, is not a candidate for tPA. Which of the following would be contraindicated for the use of tPA? (Select all that apply.)
- Minor ischemic stroke within 30 days
- Glucose level 120 mg/dL
- Blood pressure 190/120 mmHg
- Lumbar puncture 2 days ago
- Stroke onset 5 hours ago
6. INR 1.0 - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: 1, 3, 4, 5
Contraindications of tPA to treat an embolic stroke include minor ischemic stroke within the last 30 days, blood pressure greater an 185 mmHg systolic or greater than 110 mmHg diastolic, lumbar puncture within the last 3 days, and onset of stroke greater than
- hours. Glucose level of 120 mg/dL and INR of 1.0 would not be contraindications for
tPA therapy.
1.A male client is diagnosed with hyperprolactinemia. The nurse realizes that which of the following clinical manifestations occurs less frequently in men?
- A decrease in testosterone
- Erectile dysfunction 2 / 4
- Gynecomastia
- Infertility - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: 3
In men, hyperprolactinemia causes a decrease in testosterone secondary to an inhibition of gonadotropin secretion, leading to decreased facial and body hair, erectile dysfunction, decreased libido, small testicles, and infertility. Gynecomastia occurs less frequently in men.
1.Blood work of a female client shows an increase in the production of estradiol. The
nurse realizes that this hormone is controlled by:
- positive feedback.
- negative feedback.
- nervous feedback.
- reverse feedback. - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: 1
Even though most of the hormones in the endocrine system are under a negative feedback mechanism, estradiol is not one of those hormones. Estradiol is controlled by a positive feedback
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mechanism in that when it increases, there will be in an increase in the production of folliclestimulating hormone by the anterior pituitary.
1.For the client who is at risk for stroke, the most important guideline the nurse should
teach is to:
- increase drinks with caffeine.
- monitor blood pressure.
- increase amounts of sodium in the diet.
- monitor weight and activity. - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: 2
Monitoring weight and activity is important, but the highest priority is monitoring the blood pressure. This is a modifiable risk factor that, when controlled, will decrease the risk of stroke.
1.The nurse is instructing a client diagnosed with otitis media on management during the acute phase. Which of the following should the nurse include in the teaching?(Select all that apply.)
- Take the antibiotics as ordered.
- Take over-the-counter analgesics for mild pain as recommended.
- It is okay to go swimming.
- It is okay to go on vacation and trips that require flying.
- If excruciating pain develops, seek medical care.
- Limit fluids. - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: 1, 2, 5
Clients must complete the medication as ordered to kill the infection. Mild analgesics for pain are often needed. If excruciating ear pain develops, the client should seek medical care to rule out perforation of the eardrum. It is important to keep the ear dry, so the client should not swim at this time. Flying is not recommended at this time. Limiting fluids is not necessary with otitis media.
1.What are the two divisions of the nervous system? 3 / 4
- Somatic and the autonomic
- Cerebellum and the brainstem
- Medulla oblongata and the diencephalon
- Central and the peripheral - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: D
The central and the peripheral are the two divisions of the nervous system. The autonomic and the somatic are the division of the peripheral nervous system.
1.Which of the following symptoms would suggest to the nurse that a client is experiencing symptoms of pheochromocytoma? (Select all that apply.)
- Severe headache
- Decreased urine output
- Palpitations
- Diarrhea
- Profuse sweating
- Weight gain - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: 1, 3, 5
Severe headache, palpitations, and profuse sweating are the most common symptoms of pheochromocytoma. Decreased urine output, diarrhea, and weight gain are not associated with this disorder.
2.A client is experiencing a gradual blurring of vision in both eyes not associated with
any pain. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing:
- glaucoma.
- cataracts.
- macular degeneration.
- retinal detachment. - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT ANSWER: 2
Cataracts occur as the opacity of the lens becomes cloudy, blurring the vision. It occurs in both eyes but is usually worse in one eye. Gradual eye blurring is not associated with glaucoma, macular degeneration, or retinal detachment.
2.A client is prescribed a medication that is ototoxic. The nurse realizes that this
medication may cause:
- permanent or temporary vision loss.
- permanent or temporary hearing loss.
- nausea and vomiting.
4. central nervous system (CNS) depression. - CORRECT ANSWER: CORRECT
ANSWER: 2
Although many drugs cause nausea and vomiting and central nervous system (CNS) depression, ototoxic drugs cause hearing loss and the risks must be considered prior to suggesting these types of medications.
2.A client is receiving diagnostic tests to determine the presence of a malignant thyroid lesion. Which of the following are symptoms that are usually associated with a malignant thyroid? (Select all that apply.)
- Hoarseness
- Onset of dysphagia
- Age 20; male gender
- / 4