ABFM ITE EXAM LATEST UPDATE 600+
QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ACCURATE
ANSWERS ACE YOUR FIRST ATTEMPT WITH
THE BEST SOLUTION
"Sundowning" behaviour that includes nighttime disorientation and some mild agitation
is characteristic of - Correct Answer: Delirium
2-day-old infant with flesh-colored papules over an erythematous base located on the
face and trunk, containing eosinophils. - Correct Answer: Erythema toxicum
neonatorum, which usually resolves in the first week or two of life. Unknown cause.
A 5-year-old male is brought to your office after passing an intestinal worm. He lives on a farm with cattle, pigs, and dogs. He has never travelled very far from home. He does not have any respiratory symptoms or diarrhoea, but has experienced some abdominal bloating. - Correct Answer: Ascaris lumbricoides is a large roundworm that typically infects the ileum. Symptoms are variable but large infections can lead to intestinal obstruction.
Pinworms are much smaller and typically present with anal pruritus.
Tapeworms can be large, but are flat and segmental in appearance, and are typically found in the stool as segments called proglottids.
Hookworms are also round, but are typically 6-12 mm in length. They are a significant cause of anemia in children globally.
A 30-year-old male is treated with topical medications for his papulopustular rosacea with only partial improvement. The preferred antibiotic is - Correct Answer: Doxycycline
A 35-year-old white male who has had T1DM for 20 years begins having episodes of hypoglycaemia. His glucose levels had previously been stable and well controlled, and he has not recently changed his diet or insulin regimen. What is the most likely cause of
the hypoglycaemia? - Correct Answer: Diabetic nephropathy
A 48-year-old female is treated appropriately for MRSA bacteremia. An echocardiogram is negative for endocarditis. There are no indwelling devices such as prosthetic heart valves or vascular grafts. - Correct Answer: Repeat blood cultures 2-4 days after the initial set and as needed thereafter.
A copper T 380A intrauterine device (ParaGard) would be preferred over a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device (Mirena) in a patient with a history of -
Correct Answer: Severe cirrhosis or liver cancer
- Known association between oral contraceptive use and the growth of hepatocellular
adenoma, and this risk is thought to extend to other types of hormonal contraceptives 1 / 4
Breast cancer
A doctor and patient are discussing using a particular drug to treat the patient's uncontrolled hypertension. Which potential effects of the drug is a patient-oriented outcome that should be discussed during shared decision-making? - Correct Answer: A decrease in all-cause mortality
A healthy 2-month-old female is brought to your office for a routine well baby examination by both of her parents, who have no concerns. The parents refuse routine recommended vaccines for their daughter because of their personal beliefs. You want to incorporate patient-centeredness and are also concerned about improving the health of the population. You decide to follow the CDC recommendations by? - Correct Answer: Having the parents sign a refusal to vaccinate form.
A pathogen for community-acquired pneumonia in a patient who has a history of a hotel stay or cruise ship travel within the past couple of weeks. - Correct
Answer: Legionella
A risk factor for uncomplicated cystitis - Correct Answer: Frequent sexual intercourse
A U.S. hospital or birthing center seeking to be certified as "Baby Friendly" by the Baby-Friendly Hospital Initiative - Correct Answer: Providing no other food or fluids to breastfeeding infants without a medical indication
A U.S. Preventive Services Task Force "D" recommendation indicates - Correct Answer: Moderate or high certainty that the service has no net benefit or that the harms outweigh the benefits
A useful adjunct to Buprenorphine in the treatment of opioid use disorder to help increase the rates of abstinence and decrease stress-related opioid cravings - Correct
Answer: Clonidine (0.1-0.3 mg every 6-8 hours)
Absolute contraindication to fibrinolytic therapy - Correct Answer: A history of an ischemic stroke within the past 3 months unless the stroke is diagnosed within 4½ hours.
Absorption of levothyroxine is impaired by several gastrointestinal conditions - Correct Answer: Includes atrophic gastritis, chronic PPI use, and Helicobacter pylori infection.
According to DSM-5, what is the severity of anorexia nervosa based on? - Correct
Answer: BMI
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, which vaccination would be recommended for grandparents to protect their infant grandchild from illness? -
Correct Answer: Tdap 2 / 4
According to U.S. Preventive Services Task Force guidelines, patients who are overweight or obese should be screened for diabetes mellitus beginning at age -
Correct Answer: 40
ACEi and ARB as anti-hypertensives with renoprotective effects - Correct Answer: May tolerate a rise of <30% in serum creatinine after initiation. Rises in serum creatinine of >30% from baseline increase the risk of renal failure, adverse cardiac outcomes, and death.
ACEi causes angioedema due to increased bradykinin - Correct Answer: Rx: Icatibant is a bradykinin receptor type 2 blocker
Acne appearing at which one of the following ages should prompt detailed endocrine laboratory testing for possible underlying systemic disease? - Correct Answer: Mid- childhood i.e. 5yo
Activity order in a patient is admitted to the hospital for acute DVT of the lower extremity and started on anticoagulation therapy - Correct Answer: Early ambulation as tolerated
Acute bronchitis in adults is usually viral - Correct Answer: Indications for a chest radiograph include: bloody sputum, rusty-colored sputum, or dyspnoea; a pulse rate >100 beats/min; a respiratory rate >24/min; or a temperature >37.8°C (100.0°F). A chest radiograph is also indicated if there are abnormal findings on a chest examination such as fremitus, egophony, or focal consolidation.
Acute chest syndrome in Sickle Cell Disease - Correct Answer: Atypical pathogens predominates (Mycoplasma and Chlamydophila).
Viral infections are also common, especially in children with ACS.
Other possible pathogens include Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Haemophilus influenzae.
Therefore, the use of a third-generation cephalosporin along with azithromycin is the recommended antibiotic coverage.
Also include supportive care with supplemental oxygen, intravenous fluids, pain control, and incentive spirometry.
Acute laryngitis most often has a viral etiology - Correct Answer: Symptomatic
treatment is therefore most appropriate
- PPIs such as omeprazole can be of benefit in treating chronic laryngitis caused by acid
reflux 3 / 4
Acute migraine not responding to NSAIDs - Correct Answer: Metoclopramide is an
effective treatment for migraine beyond its antiemetic benefit and IV administration may be helpful for the patient unable to tolerate oral medications.
Triptan medications would be another evidence-based choice for abortive therapy of migraine.
Acute parotitis, which is commonly caused by dehydration and can be diagnosed from the history and examination - Correct Answer: Empiric treatment with beta-lactams.
Administration of sialagogues such as lemon drops may be helpful, as well as parotid gland massage.
Acute salpingitis - Correct Answer: Mucopurulent cervical discharge, tenderness with cervical motion, a normal-size uterus, and left adnexal fullness.
- Acute, adnexal fullness = Gonorrhoea
IV Abx usually consists of a beta-lactam antibiotic (cefoxitin or ceftriaxone) plus doxycycline, or gentamicin and clindamycin.
Ceftriaxone, 250 mg intramuscularly, is appropriate for uncomplicated gonococcal infection.
Acute uncomplicated cystitis antibiotic choice - Correct Answer: Bactrim/Co-
trimoxazole, Nitrofurantoin, Fosfomycin
- Increasing resistance to fluoroquinolones has been seen and they are therefore less
likely to be successful. Because of the association with tendon rupture they are also not considered first-line treatment.
Adolescent physiologic gynaecomastia - Correct Answer: One half of all adolescent males, usually bilateral but left sided more common if unilateral, typically resolves 6- 24m after onset.
Advantage of interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA, QuantiFERON-TB Gold) over tuberculin test for TB screening - Correct Answer: Ability to get results without follow-up and the fact that prior bacille Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccination does not cause a false-positive test.
Neither can distinguish between latent and active TB.
Age for opt-out HIV screening - Correct Answer: USPTF 15-65yo, CDC 13-64yo
- / 4