ABFM ITE Actual Exam 200Questions

ABFM ITE Actual Exam 200Questions and Answers With Rationales Graded A+

Question 1: A 42-year-old Asian male presents for follow-up

of elevated blood pressure. He has no additional chronic medical problems and is otherwise asymptomatic. An examination is significant for a blood pressure of 162/95 mm Hg but is otherwise unremarkable. all the labs are normal.(Claire's notes, ily) According to the American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association 2017 guidelines, which one of the following would be the most appropriate medication to initiate at this time?

• Clonidine (Catapres), 0.1 mg twice daily
• Hydralazine, 25 mg three times daily
• Lisinopril/hydrochlorothiazide (Zestoretic), 10/12.5 mg

daily

• Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor), 25 mg twice daily
• Triamterene (Dyrenium), 50 mg daily

CORRECT ANSWER : C

Question 2: During rounds at the nursing home, you are

informed that there are two residents on the unit with laboratory-confirmed influenza. According to CDC guidelines, who should receive chemoprophylaxis for influenza?

• Only symptomatic residents on the same unit
• Only symptomatic residents in the entire facility
• All asymptomatic residents on the same unit
• All residents of the facility regardless of symptoms
• All staff regardless of symptoms

CORRECT ANSWER : C

Question 3: A 24-year-old female presents with a 2-day

history of mild to moderate pelvic pain. She has had two male sex partners in the last 6 months and uses oral contraceptives and sometimes condoms. A physical examination reveals a temperature of 36.4°C (97.5°F) and moderate cervical motion and uterine tenderness. Urine hCG and a urinalysis are negative. Vaginal microscopy shows only WBCs. The

initiation of antibiotics for treatment of pelvic inflammatory disease in this patient

• is appropriate at this time
• requires an elevated temperature, WBC count, or C-

reactive protein level

• should be based on the results of gonorrhea and Chlamydia

testing

• should be based on the results of pelvic ultrasonography

CORRECT ANSWER : A

Question 4: A 24-year-old patient wants to start the process of

transitioning from female to male. He has been working with a psychiatrist who has confirmed the diagnosis of gender dysphoria. Which one of the following would be the best initial treatment for this patient?

• Clomiphene
• Letrozole (Femara)
• Leuprolide (Eligard)
• Spironolactone (Aldactone)

• Testosterone

CORRECT ANSWER : E

Question 5: Based on American Cancer Society guidelines for

cervical cancer screening, when should HPV DNA co-testing first be performed along with Papanicolaou testing?

• At the onset of sexual activity
• At age 21
• At age 25
• At age 30
• At age 35

CORRECT ANSWER : D

Question 6: Long-term proton pump inhibitor use is

associated with an increased risk for

• Barrett's esophagus
• gout