AANP AGPCNP PRACTICE Latest Update 2024-

Study Guides Aug 19, 2025
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AANP AGPCNP PRACTICE Latest Update 2024- 2025 150 Questions and Verified Correct Answers Guaranteed A+

A 2-year-old male presents for reevaluation. Two days ago, he had four episodes of vomiting and six diarrheal stools. On physical examination today, his vital signs reveal P = 120 and capillary refill of 3 seconds. The patient's eyes are sunken and his extremities

are mottled and cool to the touch. The treatment plan would include:

  • start oral electrolyte mixture every hour.
  • hospitalization for IV fluid replacement.
  • giving the child loperamide for each diarrheal stool.

4. catheterizing the child to obtain accurate urine output. - CORRECT ANSWER:

hospitalization for IV fluid replacement

A 3-year-old female has been diagnosed with bacterial meningitis. She attends preschool daily at a local church day care program. The day before her diagnosis, she ate lunch with her mother at a local restaurant. For which contact(s) would chemoprophylaxis with rifampin be recommended?

  • Preschool contacts in the past 7 days
  • A friend of the patient's sister who visited after school yesterday
  • The checkout employee at the grocery store yesterday
  • Diners at the restaurant during lunch the day the patient ate there - CORRECT

ANSWER: preschool contacts in past 7 days

A 3-year-old presents with a 2-day history of acute diarrhea with a total of 8 watery stools without blood or mucus, and 2 episodes of vomiting in the past 48 hours.Assessment reveals no current antibiotic therapy, dehydration <5%, soft abdomen with hyperactive bowel sounds, no masses or organomegaly; other physical findings are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?

  • Stool culture; Immodium AD liquid.
  • No laboratory workup; instruct parents on signs and symptoms of dehydration; diet of
  • clear liquids, advancing to bananas, rice cereal, Jell-O, and soup.

  • Start diet of clear liquids, advancing to bananas, rice cereal, Jell-O, and soup over
  • next 72 hours; Imodium AD liquid, 1 mg/sml

  • Stool for ova and parasites; advise parents of likely sources of Giardia; prescribe
  • furazolidone (Furoxone) - CORRECT ANSWER: No laboratory workup; instruct parents on signs and symptoms of dehydration; diet of clear liquids, advancing to bananas, rice cereal, Jell-O, and soup.

A 7-year-old child presents with group A streptococcal infection confirmed by throat culture. Past history includes treatment for positive streptococcal infection with 1 / 4

erythromycin (EryPed oral suspension) 3 weeks ago. What is the most appropriate next intervention?

  • Treat with amoxicillin for 10 days.
  • Obtain culture for all household members.
  • Treat with azithromycin (Zithromax) for 10 days.
  • Intramuscular Penicillin. - CORRECT ANSWER: treat with amoxicillin for 10 days

A 12-year-old with sickle cell anemia has recently experienced a sickle cell crisis and presents for a follow-up examination after a recent hospitalization. It is most important to

continue monitoring growth, development, and:

  • white blood cell levels.
  • fecal occult blood test.
  • hemoglobin levels.

4. urine dipsticks. - CORRECT ANSWER: hemoglobin levels

A 13-year-old is concerned because she has not yet begun to menstruate. Physical examination indicates that the patient is at Tanner stage IV and is of average height and weight. Which of the following would be the most appropriate response to this patient?

  • "We'll need to refer you to an endocrinologist for a complete workup."
  • "We'll need to do some tests to find out why you are not having periods."
  • "I'll give you some pills that will make your periods start."
  • "Your development is exactly as expected for your age; you'll probably begin to have
  • periods within a year." - CORRECT ANSWER: "Your development is exactly as expected for your age; you'll probably begin to have periods within a year."

A 16-year-old female adolescent is brought to the nurse practitioner's office by her mother, who is concerned about her daughter's recent weight loss. History reveals that the daughter was consistently in the 50th percentile for weight, but is now in the 10th percentile. The mother states that she is concerned that her daughter is purging herself after meals since she often goes to the restroom after eating and remains there for a long period of time. The daughter denies any self-induced vomiting, starvation or excessive activity. She does state that she jogs five miles a day and is in good condition. In addition to a complete blood count with differential, which of the following laboratory tests will be most helpful for further assessment?

  • Electrolytes, fasting blood sugar
  • Creatine phosphokinase, follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
  • Electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine, urinalysis
  • Electrolyt - CORRECT ANSWER: electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen (BUN)/creatinine,
  • urinalysis

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A 17-year-old male with rheumatoid arthritis is being treated with an NSAID and omeprazole (Prilosec). The patient complains of headache, abdominal pain, and gas.

These symptoms are most likely:

  • associated with the omeprazole.
  • related to the underlying condition.
  • the result of the NSAID.

4. caused by viral gastroenteritis. - CORRECT ANSWER: associated with the

omeprazole

A 19-year-old patient who has used oral contraceptives for 3 years plans to discontinue the pill at the end of her current cycle to become pregnant. Which of the following daily supplements would receive the highest priority?

  • Calcium carbonate
  • Folic acid
  • Ferrous sulfate

4. Multivitamin - CORRECT ANSWER: folic acid

A 26-year-old female presents with abdominal distention, bloating, and intermittent crampy abdominal pain relieved by defecation. She has four to six loose stools a day when stressed. Between bouts of diarrhea, she often has constipation. Physical examination results are normal. The CBC was normal. The most likely diagnosis is:

  • diverticulitis.
  • viral gastroenteritis.
  • inflammatory bowel disease.

4. irritable bowel syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER: irritable bowel syndrome

A 27-year-old male patient, who works as a janitor, presents with a 6-month history of an intermittent rash on his hands. History reveals itching and occasional burning.Examination reveals irregularly-distributed scaly maculopapular erythematous patches extending from the dorsum of the hand several inches up the forearms, and dry palms

with no nail involvement. The most likely diagnosis is:

  • contact dermatitis.
  • scabies infestation.
  • psoriasis.

4. eczema. - CORRECT ANSWER: contact dermatitis

A 28-year-old patient presents with profuse yellow vaginal discharge, odor, and local irritation. She reports completing a 7-day course of oral metronidazole (Flagyl), 500 mg b.i.d. 4 weeks ago. She has had multiple recurrences over the last 18 months.Microscopic examination reveals presence of clue cells. What is the most appropriate treatment intervention?

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  • Oral metronidazole (Flagyl), 500 mg b.i.d., plus metronidazole vaginal gel (MetroGel),
  • for 5 days

  • Treat both patient and partner(s) with oral metronidazole (Flagyl), 500 mg b.i.d., for 7
  • days

  • Metronidazole vaginal gel (MetroGel) twice weekly for 4 to 6 months
  • Treat patient with metronidazole vaginal gel (MetroGel) b.i.d. and partner(s) with
  • tetracycline, 250 mg q.i.d., for 7 days - CORRECT ANSWER: Treat both patient and partner(s) with oral metronidazole (Flagyl), 500 mg b.i.d., for 7 days

A 30-month-old with a history of frequent ear infections was seen in September after a symptom-free summer. Examination revealed bilateral bulging eardrums. After two separate courses of antibiotics, fluid is noted in both ears. The parent reports speech

difficulties. The most likely diagnosis is:

  • otitis media with effusion.
  • myringitis.
  • recurrent acute otitis.

4. Esutachian tube dysfunction. - CORRECT ANSWER: otiti media with effusion

A 46-year-old female found a lump in her breast this morning. History includes: no prior breast disease; G2P2 (first birth, age 22); maternal aunt diagnosed with breast cancer at age 72; last menstrual period was 2.5 weeks ago. On examination, a nurse practitioner palpates a 2-cm round, soft, mobile, tender lesion in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast. Mammogram is negative. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?

  • Reassure the patient that no further action is necessary.
  • Repeat unilateral right mammogram in 3 months.
  • Schedule a right-breast ultrasound.

4. Refer for genetic testing if the lump increases in size. - CORRECT ANSWER:

schedule a right breast ultrasound

A 46-year-old female presents with a complaint of amenorrhea for 3 months. The first-

line diagnostic workup is:

  • urine pregnancy test.
  • progesterone challenge.
  • serum prolactin level.

4. thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). - CORRECT ANSWER: urine pregnancy test

A 50-year-old male presents with bruises and abrasions on the left leg and forearm, claiming to have had a number of minor accidents at home and at work. The patient reports general feelings of depression, forgetfulness, and, despite the fact that he is regularly employed, a mounting collection of unpaid and overdue bills. In taking the patient's history, a significant pattern of parental alcohol abuse, stroke, TIA, and MI emerges. During questioning to elicit a more thorough diagnosis, the patient becomes

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Category: Study Guides
Added: Aug 19, 2025
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AANP AGPCNP PRACTICE Latest Update 2024- 2025 150 Questions and Verified Correct Answers Guaranteed A+ A 2-year-old male presents for reevaluation. Two days ago, he had four episodes of vomiting an...

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