2024 ABRET Practice Test 2 New Full Test | Questions and Answers ( Included ) 100% Correct
- blood clot, air bubble, piece of fatty deposit, or other object that is blocking the
way
Answer: embolus
2. In Baep's, presbycusis causes:
Answer: normal or near normal at high intensity click stimulation, but lower
intensity stimulation, increased absolute latencies and normal inter-peak latencies
- what kind of signal changes would be present due to positioning effect of the left
arm
Answer: loss of LEFT cortical, subcortical, and ERB's point signals
- the retina area stimulated by a relatively small check size on pattern reversals is
Answer: macula (fovea)
- optimal repetition rate for intraoperative BAEPs is
Answer: 31 Hz
- what type of responses are subcortical evoked potentials?
Answer: far field
- During Posterior fossa approach for removal of an acoustic neuroma, an increase
in the latency of wave V is mostly caused by
Answer: retraction of cerebellum
- most appropriate monitoring protocol for pituitary removal surgery is
Answer: VEPs
- while monitoring the thoracolumbar procedure over the past three hours, there is a
steady increase in bilateral P37 with stable P31 responses, what should you do?
Answer: continue to monitor P31
- monitoring of the CN III can be done by placing electrodes in the
Answer: inferior oblique
- EEG activity recorded directly from the cortex (ECoG) requires sensitivities in
the range of
Answer: 40-100 uV/mm 1 / 3
- if the voltage in a circuit is 400 volts and the resistance is 50 ohms the current
equals
Answer: 8 amperes
- area of the brain responsible for language perception
Answer: wernickes
- after discharges occur after what
Answer: direct cortical stimulation
- which of the following evoked potentials tests would have the lowest rate of
abnormality in patients with MS
Answer: BAEP
16. EEG electrodes during IONM should have impedances that ranging from:-
Answer: 1000-5000 ohms
- which of the following are thalamic nuclei for the somatosensory pathway-
Answer: VPL nucleus
- filter bandpass for BAER (ABR)
Answer: 10-30 to 2500-3000 Hz or -3 dB
- what CN monitoring will be ideal for CPA tumor removal procedure
Answer: VII and VIII
- in obtaining post-incision preoperative baseline posterior tibial response, what is
the best location for the ground
Answer: calf
- which of the following is the normal interocular latency difference of P100
Answer: less than 15 msec
- during retro-sigmoid microvascular decompression, what is the most like ly cause
of hearing loss
Answer: occlusion of the blood supply to the cochlea
- the number of recording channels for full-field VEP should be
Answer: 4
- / 3
- succ is an example of what type of muscle relaxant
Answer: depolarizing
- which of the following nerve usually does not produce spontaneous emg activity
during intraoperative monitoring
Answer: ischemia
- mismatched electrode metals cause
Answer: bias potentials from the different amplification of the different charge of each metal
- In selecting the horizontal parameters of analysis
Answer: the sampling rate should be at least twice the highest frequency in the
signal
- in brainstem auditory evoked potential, decreasing click intensity will result in
Answer: unchanged interpeak intervals
- transection or spinal shock affects function below the level of injury, resulting in
loss of
Answer: reflexes, visceral sensation, and motor function
- best muscles for L4-S1 pedicle screw stim would be
Answer: TA and Gastro
- when monitoring the facial nerve
Answer: long lasting muscle relaxants must be avoided
- during phase reversal SSEPs, the normal N20/P30 complex is recorded over the
somatosensory cortex, and the P20/N30 is recorded over the
Answer: motor cortex
- which of the following instrumentation systems makes use of wires to secure
rods to the spine
Answer: luque
- dyskinesia
Answer: abnormal movement
- which of the following represents the primary cellular composition of the
- / 3
nervous system
